For the ‘active authorizations’ it states that those situations remain active between the United States and those countries. Did anyone know this as a general public? So technically, does congress have to declare war? Because it looks like those situations still remain open and it’s with the United States and the very same countries! Is that what that could mean? What if congress never declares war? What do you think? Here is what the link says about those situations: before looking at that, this word repeal is used in that article. Also AUMF: authorization for use of military force.
Why would the previous presidential administration and this current administration want to repeal all of these AUMF’s but then take military action against Iran and all of the other countries that they are taking military action against. These administrations weren’t around when those previous AUMF’s were taking place so why do they care about those? If the AUMF’s are repealed, then this president would have to declare war, but congress has to do that…
If these AUMF’s are repealed, then because the U.S. military did take those actions, and that repeal would say that the United States military was incorrect in protecting the United States of America at those times then could the United States military be charged with war crimes against those countries that they took an AUMF against?
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