Has anyone thought about this? By Margaret Leora Workman; Warponie Art

I thought ‘intent to harm’ could not be considered a crime because ‘intent’ means to me that you never committed the crime. I looked this up because it was in a list of something that I was already reading on Wikipedia. I have never understood this, it seems extremely subjective. So we are judged by our moral or immoral minds in order to charge us with a crime? Is that correct? Please read this! It states that a non-crime can be leveled up to an actual crime if they add ‘intent to harm’ (men’s rea, guilty mind) to the situation. How can a judge determine anything using this? Do you remember the movie ‘catch me if you can’? Super awesome movie and wasn’t it supposed to be a true story? What if that guy was hated by many people because of how he was able to outsmart them, and because of that, a judge decided to add men’s rea to his list of grievances. He wasn’t a criminal, just highly intelligent.

Intending to harm and intent to harm are two different situations….